KPSC Radiographer Answer Key 01-10-2022 @keralapsc.gov.in

KPSC Radiographer Grade-2 Exam Answer Key 2022: Students who appeared the Radiographer Exam on 01-10-2022 are now eagerly waiting for the Answer Key. The final test took place on 1st October, 2022. The examinations began on 1st of oct 2022. Candidates who were able to take part in their respective subject exam can now check the answer keys on the official portal https://www.keralapsc.gov.in/. Students will be able to assess their question paper with the answer keys. After the official announcement of result, different colleges and universities will announce specific cut-off marks for recruitment. Information on Expected Cut-Off Marks of KPSC Radiographer Download, Exam Paper Analysis, and more can be found in the write-up below.

KPSC Radiographer Provisional Answer Key 2022

The Final Answer Key, modified as per experts’ opinion on the valid complaints received from candidates within the stipulated time, will be published in the Bulletin and website. The complaints received after the publication of Final Answer Key will not be entertained.

OMR Questions Asked in Radiographer Examinations give below. So Candidate Can Check their Answer and Asses the Marks himself.

Question1:-Number of electrons flowing per second from filament to target in an x-ray tube refers to
A:-Tube voltage
B:-Tube current
C:-Tube emission
D:-Tue capacitance
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question2:-Melting point of tungsten is
A:-3370 degrees C
B:-9371 degrees C
C:-1000 degrees C
D:-500 degrees C
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question3:-Range of anode angle in x-ray tubes
A:-1 to 2 degree
B:-30 to 40 degree
C:-6 to 20 degree
D:-90 to 100 degree
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question4:-Bucky factor indicates the absorption of
A:-only primary radiation
B:-only secondary radiation
C:-scattered radiation
D:-both primary and secondary radiation
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question5:-Noise which arises which from the statistical fluctuations in the number of x-ray photons absorbed by the intensifying screen to form an image in a film is also called
A:-Luminescence
B:-Dynamic Range
C:-Quantum Mottle
D:-Speed
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question6:-Q-factor of a transducer refers to
A:-purity of the sound wave
B:-length of the time of sound wave
C:-acoustic impedance
D:-purity and length of time of sound wave
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question7:-SI unit for absorbed dose
A:-gray
B:-rem
C:-sievert
D:-roentgen
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question8:-The time interval between 2 90 degree pulses in MR image acquisition is
A:-PD
B:-TE
C:-TR
D:-GRE
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question9:-In a CT image, each square in the image matrix is called
A:-voxel
B:-data
C:-element
D:-pixel
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question10:-‘Characteristics curve’ depicts relationship between
A:-power and amplitude
B:-frequency and wavelength
C:-pitch and distance
D:-exposure and density
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question11:-The structure known as the ‘pacemaker of the heart’ is
A:-AV node
B:-Bundle of His
C:-Purkinje fibres
D:-SA node
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question12:-Diabetes incipidus is a medical condition due to deficiency of
A:-Growth hormone
B:-ACTH
C:-ADH
D:-LH
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question13:-Elevation of medially-rotated eye, abduction and lateral rotation is the action of which extra-ocular muscle
A:-superior oblique
B:-inferior oblique
C:-superior rectus
D:-inferior rectus
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question14:-Mental foramen is located in which bone ?
A:-scapula
B:-clavicle
C:-mandible
D:-femur
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question15:-A hollow cavity inside a bone is called
A:-fossa
B:-sinus
C:-sulcus
D:-trochlea
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question16:-Breast is a _______ gland.
A:-salivary
B:-sweat
C:-sebaceous
D:-lacrimal
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question17:-Innermost layer of the meninges – the membranous covering surrounding the brain is
A:-dura mater
B:-pia mater
C:-arachnoid mater
D:-grey matter
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question18:-Forceps major is an anatomical structure in
A:-kidney
B:-brain
C:-liver
D:-lung
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question19:-The terminal branches of external carotid artery are
A:-lingual A and facial A
B:-superior thyroid A and inferior thyroid A
C:-superficial temporal A and maxillary A
D:-ascending pharyngeal A and lingual A
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question20:-Nerve within the carpal tunnel is
A:-radial nerve
B:-ulnar nerve
C:-median nerve
D:-sciatic nerve
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question21:-In a conventional photographic film, gelatin and silver halide are components of
A:-adhesive layer
B:-super-coating
C:-base
D:-emulsion
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question22:-In film processing, the chemical process that amplifies the latent image – by a factor of millions – to form a visible silver pattern is called
A:-sensitisation
B:-development
C:-fixing
D:-attenuation
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question23:-Measurement of film blackness is called
A:-linear attenuation
B:-photographic density
C:-transmission
D:-exposure gradient
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question24:-Film contrast depends on all the following except
A:-characteristic curve of a film
B:-film processing
C:-film density
D:-differential attenuation
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question25:-Maximum slope of a characteristic curve is
A:-film gamma
B:-film alpha
C:-film theta
D:-film delta
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question26:-Development of unexposed silver halide grains that do not contain the latent image is called
A:-oxidation
B:-photoelectric effect
C:-fog
D:-automatic exposure
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question27:-Fixation removes unexposed
A:-gelatin
B:-silver halide
C:-ammonium thiosulphate
D:-polyester base
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question28:-Increasing the time or temperature of film development will cause
A:-decreased film speed
B:-increased radiation exposure
C:-increased fog
D:-decreased average gradient
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question29:-Range of log-relative exposure, that will produce a density within the accepted range for diagnostic radiology, is called
A:-speed
B:-latitude
C:-contrast
D:-spectrum
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question30:-________ reaction occurs when the photon energy and the electron binding energy are nearly the same.
A:-Pair production
B:-Coherent scattering
C:-Photo-electric reaction
D:-Compton scattering
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question31:-Nuclides with the same number of protons but different neutrons are
A:-isomer
B:-isotone
C:-isotope
D:-isobar
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question32:-Technetium-99 has a half life of
A:-6 minutes
B:-6 hours
C:-6 days
D:-6 weeks
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question33:-Types of biological effects of radiation are
A:-balanced and unbalanced
B:-reversible and irreversible
C:-stochastic and deterministic
D:-linear and non-linear
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question34:-In PC-PNDT Act, 1994, which is the form for informed consent for invasive procedures
A:-Form A
B:-Form B
C:-Form F
D:-Form G
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question35:-The MR equivalent of ‘power absorbed per unit mass’, just like we measure Gy in ionizing radiation, is
A:-Tesla (T)
B:-Thermal Index (TI)
C:-Specific Absorption Rate (SAR)
D:-Mechanical Index (MI)
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question36:-In MRI, the abbreviation TE in a pulse-echo sequence, stands for
A:-tesla echo
B:-thermal efficiency
C:-time to exit
D:-time to echo
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question37:-The ___________ is the thickness of a specific substance that, when introduced in the path of a beam of radiation, reduces exposure rate by half.
A:-Attenuation Difference (AD)
B:-Half-Life Thickness (HLT)
C:-Half-Value Layer (HVL)
D:-None of these
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question38:-To differentiate between calcification and haemorrhage, the sequence used in MRI is
A:-Diffusion-weighted image
B:-MR spectroscopy
C:-Susceptibility-weighted imaging
D:-MR perfusion
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question39:-Active CSF leak is confirmed with _________ investigation.
A:-CT fistulogram
B:-CT enterography
C:-CT cisternogram
D:-CT angiogram
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question40:-Transducer crystals in the USG probe are made up of
A:-Piezoelectric crystals
B:-LCD crystals
C:-Thermocouple crystals
D:-Strain guage
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question41:-MRI sequence for detecting microscopic fat content in the tissue is
A:-Diffusion-weighted imaging
B:-functional MRI
C:-in-phase and out-of-phase sequence
D:-MR contrast
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question42:-The appropriate attitude towards a patient seeking assistance in a hospital setting would be
A:-sympathy
B:-empathy
C:-antipathy
D:-apathy
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question43:-In female patients presenting for ionizing radiation-based investigations, the most important clinical history to be elicited is
A:-financial history
B:-surgical history
C:-menstrual history
D:-medical history
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question44:-All these are ionizing radiation except
A:-x-ray
B:-gamma ray
C:-beta ray
D:-ultra-violet radiation
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question45:-The 3 basic principles of radiation protection
A:-sensitisation, standardisation, subsidisation
B:-jurisdiction, optimization, legalisation
C:-justification, optimization, dose-limitation
D:-sustainability, compatibility, longevity
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question46:-What is the relationship between the radiation dose and distance ? Doubling distance will decrease dose by
A:-one-half
B:-one-third
C:-one-fourth
D:-one-fifth
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question47:-AERB stands for
A:-Applied and Essential Radiology Background
B:-Assisted and Enhanced Radiation Barrier
C:-Applied Exposure Regulatory Board
D:-Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question48:-The absolute density in CT is measured in __________ units.
A:-tesla
B:-voxel
C:-hounsfield
D:-roentgen
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question49:-Radiation -induced cancer and genetic effects are considered ______ biological effects of radiation.
A:-deterministic
B:-stochastic
C:-characteristic
D:-catastrophic
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question50:-In ante-natal pregnancy scanning, a dedicated fetal anomaly scan is done at ______ gestational age.
A:-5-6 weeks
B:-18-20 weeks
C:-28-32 weeks
D:-38-40 weeks
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question51:-Half-life (𝑇1/2 ) of a radioactive substance is related to the average life (𝑇� ) by which equation ?
A:-𝑇1/2 = 1.44𝑇�
B:-𝑇1/2 = 1.44 + 𝑇�
C:-𝑇1/2 = 𝑇� /1.44
D:-𝑇1/2 = 𝑇� − 1.44
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question52:-X-ray quantity is the
A:-Energy of the X-ray beam
B:-Number of X-ray photons in the X-ray beam
C:-Energy of electrons hitting the target
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question53:-Which of the following is not a gas filled detector ?
A:-Scintillation detector
B:-Proportional counter
C:-GM detector
D:-Ionization chamber
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question54:-Track of ionization produced by secondary electrons are known as
A:-Bragg peak
B:-Delta rays
C:-Alpha rays
D:-Stopping power
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question55:-Tissue Air Ratio (TAR) is independent of
A:-Depth
B:-Field size
C:-Beam energy
D:-SSD
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question56:-Fluoroscopy images can be recorded by means of
A:-Spot film cassette
B:-Photo spot films
C:-Digital recording
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question57:-The line passing through points of equal dose is known as
A:-Isocentre
B:-Penumbra
C:-Isodose curve
D:-Build up depth
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question58:-The measure of total energy absorbed in treated volume is
A:-Effective dose
B:-Equivalent dose
C:-Integral dose
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question59:-The unit of absorbed dose is
A:-rem
B:-rad
C:-curie
D:-sievert
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question60:-In the Build Up region, KERMA is _________ absorbed dose.
A:-Greater than
B:-Equal to
C:-Smaller than
D:-Twice the
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question61:-The half-life of Gold 198 (Au-198) is
A:-6.02 hrs
B:-73.8 days
C:-17 days
D:-2.7 days
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question62:-The total activity of all radioisotopes discharged into the sewage in one year by any institution shall not exceed
A:-1 Ci
B:-2 Ci
C:-5 Ci
D:-10 Ci
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question63:-Tc-99 m emits gamma energy of
A:-159 keV
B:-80 keV
C:-364 keV
D:-140 keV
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question64:-Which of the following is the AERB safety directive describes the dose limits for exposures from ionizing radiations for workers and the members of the public
A:-AERB Directive No. 01/2011
B:-AERB Directive No. 02/2011
C:-AERB Directive No. 01/2021
D:-AERB Directive No. 02/2021
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question65:-What is the minimum primary wall thickness of a typical Telecobalt bunker ?
A:-190 cm
B:-220 cm
C:-130 cm
D:-45 cm
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question66:-1 TVT = __________ HVT.
A:-33
B:-0.33
C:-33.33
D:-3.3
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question67:-Lateral wall of Nasopharynx contain all except
A:-Torus tubarius
B:-Fossa of Rosemuller
C:-Basilar portion of sphenoid
D:-Pharyngo tympanic tube
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question68:-Bimodal age distribution is found in which Carcinoma of head and neck ?
A:-Cancer oropharynx
B:-Cancer nasopharynx
C:-Cancer larynx
D:-Cancer oral cavity
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question69:-Acinic cell carcinoma salivary gland arises from
A:-Mucus producing cells and cells of intermediate type
B:-Myoepithelial cells
C:-Excretory duct cells
D:-Terminal ducts & Intercalated ducts
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question70:-In AJCC staging of head and neck tumors, which carcinoma staging takes into consideration the human papilloma virus status
A:-Cancer oropharynx
B:-Cancer nasopharynx
C:-Cancer larynx
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question71:-In cervical carcinoma, presence of hydronephrosis is staged as
A:-Stage II A
B:-Stage II B
C:-Stage III A
D:-Stage III B
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question72:-First site of distant metastasis in cervical cancer is
A:-Lung
B:-Abdominal cavity
C:-Spine
D:-Liver
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question73:-Breast anatomically extends cranio-caudally from
A:-First rib to sixth rib anteriorly
B:-First rib to fifth rib anteriorly
C:-Second rib to sixth rib anteriorly
D:-Second rib to fifth rib anteriorly
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question74:-Well established risk factors in development of cancer breast includes all except
A:-Early menarche
B:-Germ line mutation
C:-Obesity after menopause
D:-Early menopause
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question75:-R-S cells are signature neoplastic cells of
A:-Classic non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B:-Classic Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C:-Chronic myeloid leukemia
D:-Acute myeloblastic leukemia
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question76:-Rectum is approximately ___________ in length.
A:-8 to 11 cm
B:-10 to 13 cm
C:-12 to 15 cm
D:-15 to 18 cm
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question77:-Cancer registry in India under ICMR include
A:-Population based and community based registry
B:-Population based and hospital based registry
C:-Community based and clinic based registry
D:-Population based registries only
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question78:-Common ethical issues directly affecting Oncology patients are all except
A:-Electronic record keeping
B:-Financial relationship into industry sponsors
C:-Genetic counseling
D:-Plagiarism and fabrication
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question79:-Patient counseling before radiation planning and start of treatment should include all except
A:-Informed consent duly signed
B:-Giving educational brochure on instructions, common side effects and their initial management
C:-Both of the above
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question80:-Radiation induced salivary dysfunction can be prevented by
A:-Limiting mean dose to parotid glands to 45 Gy
B:-Amifostine therapy
C:-Both of the above
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question81:-Intensity modulated radiotherapy includes _________ before plan acceptance.
A:-Inverse planning and defining constraints
B:-Forward planning and selecting beam parameters
C:-Optimization of treatment design
D:-Both 1 and 3
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question82:-Which volume takes into consideration the organ motion and setup variations in IMRT planning ?
A:-Gross tumor volume
B:-Clinical target volume
C:-Planning target volume
D:-Planning risk volume
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question83:-The rationale for _________ fractionation is that reduction of overall treatment time decreases the opportunity for tumor cell regeneration.
A:-Accelerated fractionation radiotherapy
B:-Hyper fractionation radiotherapy
C:-Conventional fractionation radiotherapy
D:-Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question84:-Biological effect of concurrent chemo radiation include all except
A:-Shift of cell survival curves towards higher cell killing levels
B:-A decrease in tumor mass and re-oxygenation
C:-Increased apoptosis
D:-Favorer DNA repair
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question85:-Spinal cord tolerance in radiotherapy
A:-35 Gy
B:-45 Gy
C:-55 Gy
D:-65 Gy
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question86:-SBRT is
A:-Systemic Based Radiotherapy
B:-Stereotactic Based Radiotherapy
C:-Stereotactic Body Radiotherapy
D:-Systemic Body Radiotherapy
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question87:-All can be used in cancer treatment except
A:-Proton therapy
B:-Neutron therapy
C:-Carbon ions
D:-Nitrogen ions
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question88:-HDR (High Dose Rate) brachytherapy is
A:->12 Gy/hour
B:->10 Gy/hour
C:->20 Gy/hour
D:->22 Gy/hour
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question89:-Brachytherapy technique is commonly used in all except
A:-Cancer Cervix
B:-Cancer Prostate
C:-Cancer Buccal Mucosa
D:-Cancer Brain
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question90:-ICRU (International Commission on Radiation Units and Measurements) 38 defines
A:-IMRT
B:-3DCRT
C:-Brachytherapy
D:-IGRT
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question91:-Radiopharmaceuticals include all except
A:-Iodine-131
B:-Phosphorus-32
C:-Strontium-89
D:-Radium-203
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question92:-In nasopharyngeal carcinoma, gross disease is given a total dose of
A:-80 Gy
B:-70 Gy
C:-60 Gy
D:-54 Gy
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question93:-Left parotid gland radiation treatment is conventionally planned in which treatment position ?
A:-Supine with neck extended
B:-Supine with neck flexed
C:-Supine with head turned to left
D:-Supine with head turned to right
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question94:-Level IV neck node include
A:-Upper deep cervical lymph nodes
B:-Lower deep cervical lymph nodes
C:-Middle deep cervical lymph nodes
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question95:-Palliative radiotherapy common schedules to spine metastasis include
A:-50 Gy/25 fractions/5 weeks
B:-65 Gy/20 fractions/5 weeks
C:-30 Gy/10 fractions/2 weeks
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question96:-In breast planning, brachial plexus dose volume constraints is kept at
A:-maximum 54 Gy
B:-Mean dose 54 Gy
C:-Maximum 44 Gy
D:-Mean dose 44 Gy
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question97:-Neo adjuvant radiotherapy is used for down staging and functional preservation in treatment of
A:-astrocytoma brain
B:-cancer lung
C:-cancer rectum
D:-none of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question98:-Which chemotherapy drug is not used in concurrent chemo radiotherapy for anal cancer ?
A:-Adriamycin
B:-Mitomycin C
C:-5-flurouracil
D:-Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question99:-Early vocal cord cancers can be treated by all except
A:-Radical radiotherapy
B:-Trans oral laser micro surgery
C:-Trans oral robotic surgery
D:-Total laryngectomy
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question100:-Superior border in cancer cervix, external beam radiotherapy planning is taken as
A:-L2-L3 vertebral inter space
B:-L3-L4 vertebral inter space
C:-L5-S1 vertebral inter space
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B